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Basic Biomedical Sciences-Special Exam Question Paper
Basic Biomedical Sciences-Special Exam
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: Moi University question papers
Exam Year:2007
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MOI UNIVERSITY
SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
END OF TERM I SPECIAL EXAMINATION (ETSE I) 2007/2008
COURSE CODE: MSB 100/NSB 110
COURSE TITLE: BASICS OF BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES
PROGRAMME: MBChB/NUR/BDS
YEAR OF STUDY: 1(ONE)
DATE: 15TH AUGUST, 2008 TIME: 9.00 A.M. - 12.00 NOON
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
i) Write your University Registration Number on every piece of paper you use.
ii) Do not write your names on any piece of paper you use.
iii) This paper consists of six (6) sections, headed: Section A -Immunology, Section B - Toxicology, Section C - Biochemistry D - Pharmacology, Section E - Microbiology & Parasitology, Section F - Radiology & Imaging. All to be answered in a total time of three (3) hours.
iv) Each section constitutes a CAT relating to the discipline named.
v) Answer all the questions in all the six (6) sections.
vi) Questions in each section must be answered in separate answer booklets or answer sheets so that they can be handed in separately at the end of the examination.
vii) Read carefully the additional instructions preceeding each section.
SECTION A - IMMUNOLOGY
INSTRUCTIONS:
I. THIS PAPER CONSISTS OF THIRTY (30) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) TO BE ANSWERED IN THIRTY (30) MINUTES.
II. EACH MCQ CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/STEM WHOSE MOST CORRECT RESPONSE IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED A TO E.
III. FOR EACH MCQ, SELECT ONLY ONE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY CIRCLING IT.
EXAMPLE:
Major features of innate immunity include:
(a) Recognition.
(b) Specificity.
(c) Memory.
(e) Adaptability.
the appropriate response is d
IV. A CORRECT RESPONSE IN THE MCQs EARNS YOU PLUS ONE (+1) MARK. AN INCORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU MINUS HALF (-½) A MARK. NO PENALTY FOR UNATTEMPTED MCQ.
V. ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS.
SECTION A:
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (30 Minutes)
1. Immunogenicity is enhanced by:
a) Low degree of foreignness.
b) Mwt of subsance < 1 kDa.
c) High degree of chemical complexity.
d) Intravenous antigen administration.
e) Low degradability of antigen.
2. Early practices of immunization did NOT involve:
a) Inhalation of powder from small pox lesion crusts.
b) Variolation of small pox crusts powders.
c) Variolation using cow pox substituted with small pox.
d) Inoculation with vaccinia virus.
e) Attenuated chicken cholera bacillus.
3. Which of the following is NOT an opsonin in phagocytosis?
a) Fibrinectin.
b) Fragment of IgG.
c) Complement component.
d) Fragment of IgM.
e) Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).
4. Secondary immune response is characterized by:
a) IgM antibody.
b) Quiker onset and high magnitude.
c) Longer lag phase.
d) Short lived memory.
e) Exposure to a different antigen.
5. Which of the following is NOT involved in the process of phagocytosis?
a) Release of acid hydrolases.
b) Phagosome – lysosome fusion.
c) Membrane evagination and engulfing.
d) Release of debris and pathogen products from the cell.
e) Inhibition of proteclytiC enzymes.
6. Genetic factors that confer resistance against malaria EXCLUDE:
a) Sickle cell trail A/S.
b) Positive Duffy (a-b) blood groups.
c) G – 6 – PO4 dehydrogenase deficiency.
d) Negative Dufty (a-b) blood group.
e) Sickle cell susceptibility to reactive oxygen species.
7. Which of the following is NOT a soluble mediator of innate immunity?
a) Lactoferrins.
b) Lysozymas.
c) Defensins.
d) Cathelicidins.
e) Lipopolysaccherides.
8. Which of the following is NOT true?
a) TLR - 2 binds to peptidoglycan.
b) TLR – 3 binds to ds RNA of viruses.
c) TLR – 4 binds to gram-positive bacterial walls.
d) TLR – 5 binds to flagellin of motile bacteria.
e) TLR – 8 binds to ss RNA of influenza virus.
9. The following are Founders of Immunolgy EXCEPT:
a) Macfarlane Burnet for clonal selection theory.
b) Jean Dausset for human leukocyte antigens (HLA).
c) Noel Warner for distinction of cellular and humoral immune responses.
d) Zinkernagel and Doherty for secretory immunoglobulins.
e) Tonegawa for identification of immunoglobulin genes.
10. The following provide a link between innate and adaptive immunity EXCEPT
a) NK cell activity
b) Biological activity of cytokines
c) CD80/86 – CD28 costimulatory signals
d) Apoptosis
e) Antigen specific activation of immune system.
11. Humoral immunity is associated with the following EXCEPT:
a) Stem cells and plasma cells.
b) Immunoglobulin classes.
c) Complement proteins.
d) Antigen specific leukocyte cell mediators.
e) Bone marrow derived cells.
12. The following Founders of Immunology are NOT credit for:
a) Kohler and Milstein discovery of immunoglobulin supergenes.
b) Vaccination by Edward Jenner.
c) Ilya Metchnikoff proposed theory of phagocytes.
d) Robert Koch description of delayed type hypersensitivity reaction.
e) Louis Pasteur for germ disease theory.
13. During haemopoetic cell differentiation:
a) Lymphoid progenitors produce basophils.
b) Megakaryocytes differentiate into monocytes.
c) Granulocytes are derived from lymphoid cells.
d) Myeloid rogenitors give rise to granulocytes and plateles.
e) Red blood cells and platelets are derived from lymphoid progenators.
14. Soluble mediators of innate immunity EXCLUDE the following:
a) Classical pathway proteins.
b) Acute phase proteins.
c) Interferons.
d) Alternative complement proteins.
e) Lactoferrin.
15. Physical barriers to infection do NOT include:
a) Mocociliary elevation in lung trachea.
b) Organic acids in skin sweat.
c) Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue.
d) Competitive GIT natural fauna.
e) Nasopharynx and mucous cilia flushings.
16. Inflammation may NOT lead to:
a) Fever caused by interleukin-1 (IL-1).
b) Production of prostaglondins.
c) Skin swelling due to histamine.
d) Restoration of tissue integrity.
e) Production of defensins and cathelicidins.
17. T cell interaction with antigen presenting cells (APC) involve the following membrane molecules EXCEPT
a) CD 2 -------- LFA 3
b) LFA – 1 ------- ICAM -1
c) CD1 --------- ICAM-1
d) CD45R-------- CD22
e) CD28--------- CD80/86
18. In secondary lymphoid organs, paracortex contains:
a) Germinar centres.
b) B cells and dendritic cells.
c) Plasma cells.
d) T cells and dendritic cells.
e) B cells and T cells.
19. The following function both as primary and secondary lymphoid organs:
a) Peyer’s patches and bone marrow.
b) Bone marrow and thymus.
c) Tonsils and mesenteric lymph nodes.
d) Spleen and lymph nodes.
e) Bursa of fabricions and thymus.
20. The following cluster of differentiation (CD) antigens define the cell subpopulation indicated:
a) CD2 for macrophages.
b) CD23 for normal B cells.
c) CD8 for pan T cells.
d) CD2 for thymocytes.
e) CD8 for cytotoxic T cells.
21. Central principle of adaptive immunity is derived from:
a) Louis Pasteur theory.
b) Burnet’s clonal selection theory.
c) Edward Jenner’s postulation.
d) Milstein and Kohler technique.
e) Robert Koch theory.
22. The following are not characteristic feature of innate immunity.
a) No memory of prior exposure exists.
b) Inborn pattern recognition receptors (PRR) recognize pathogens.
c) Randomly generated receptors recognize pathogens.
d) Response is immediate.
e) Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) display broad specificity.
23. Which of the following is a transmembrane antigen?
a) Hapten.
b) Immunogen.
c) Alloantigen.
d) Antigen.
e) Superantigen.
24. Cytokines include the following EXCEPT:
a) Interferons.
b) Lymphokines.
c) Monokines.
d) Hormones.
e) Interleukins.
25. Neutrophil-derived microbicidal factors include:
a) Reactive oxygen species.
b) Lysozyones and hydrolases.
c) Major basic protein.
d) Lymphotoxis.
e) Arginase.
26. The following are associated with inflammation EXCEPT:
a) Acute phase response induced by endotoxins.
b) Characteristic features include heat, pain, redness and swelling.
c) Serotonin derived from lymphocytes.
d) Brodykinin and prostaglandin cause pain.
e) Chemotactic cytokines secreted by stimulated mast cells.
27. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) system does NOT include:
a) Chromosome 14.
b) Chromosome 6.
c) Haplotypes.
d) Supergene family molecule.
e) Polymorphism.
28. Humoral immunity does NOT consist of the following:
a) NK cells and macrophages
b) Complement system proteins.
c) Nine (9) classes and subclasses of immunoglobulins (Igs).
d) Plasma cells.
e) Bone-derived lymphocytes.
29. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Superantigens stimulate massive T cell functions.
b) Lipopolysaccharides are T cell dependent antigens.
c) Sabin is a live attenuated virus antigen against polio.
d) Lactoferrin is a major sperm-coating antigen.
e) Parasite surface coat and endotoxins may be antigenic.
30. Most common in organic adjurants EXCLUDE:
a) Aluminium hydroxide.
b) Aluminium phosphate.
c) Ammonium oxide
d) Potassium ammonium sulphate.
e) Calcium phosphate.
SECTION B: TOXICOLOGY (30 Minutes)
TYPE III
SUBSECTION B I - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)
INSTRUCTIONS:-
(I) EACH OF THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SUBSECTION CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/QUESTION WHOSE MOST APPROPRIATE COMPLETION/ANSWER IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED (a) - (e).
(II) FOR EACH QUESTION SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE APPROPRIATE BOX IN THE ANSWER SHEETS PROVIDED. IF YOU DO NOT KNOW THE ANSWER, PRINT X IN THE BOX IN THE `D'' COLUMN
(III) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU PLUS ONE (1) MARK.
1. Toxicology may be defined as the study of
(a) The degradation of biological warfare agents
(b) The cost of toxicity testing
(c) The regulation of chemicals in the home
(d) The expected frequency of occurrence of unwanted effects
(e) The adverse effects of chemicals on living systems
2. Toxic agents can be classified according to all the following EXCEPT
(a) Color
(b) Physical state
(c) Chemical structure
(d) Poisoning potential
(e) Chemical stability and reactivity
3. Toxicants may move across biological membranes by all the following mechanisms EXCEPT
(a) Lipid diffusion
(b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Aqueous hydrolysis
(d) Filtration
(e) Active transport
4. Which of the following statements describes the process of active transport?
(a) The chemical moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
(b) The chemical moves across the membrane through an energy-consuming process
(c) Administration of metabolic inhibitors that block the energy production stimulates transport
(d) The chemical moves with an electrochemical gradient through a carrier-mediated process
(e) The chemical flows with water across a porous membrane
5. A toxicant’s distribution to a specific tissue does NOT
(a) Depend on blood flow
(b) Depend on the size of the organ
(c) Depend on the solubility of the chemical in that tissue
(d) Increase for xenobiotics that are bound to plasma proteins
(e) Depend on the concentration gradient between blood and tissue
6. Which of the following is NOT a major route for toxicant absorption into the blood?
(a) Dermal
(b) Oral
(c) Ocular
(d) Inhalation
(e) Renal
7. Which of the following is the quantitatively LEAST important route of toxicant excretion from the body?
(a) Bile
(b) Tears
(c) Intestine
(d) Exhalation
(e) Urine
8. Xenobiotics elicit toxicity generally by all the following mechanisms EXCEPT
(a) Interference with cellular energy metabolism
(b) Interference with intracellular Ca++ concentration homeostasis
(c) Interference with normal receptor – toxicant interactions
(d) Interference with membrane functions
(e) Interference with renal excretion
9. Which of the following terms describes the state of decreased responsiveness to a toxic effect of a chemical agent resulting from prior exposure to that chemical or to a structurally related chemical?
(a) Tolerance
(b) Allergy
(c) Idiosyncracy
(d) Hypersensitivity
(e) Antagonism
10. Which of the following statements BEST characterizes potentiation?
(a) Potentiation occurs if a xenobiotic that lacks an effect of its own increases the effect of a second, active xenobiotic
(b) Potentiation occurs if two chemicals with the same effect, when given together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects when the chemicals are given individually
(c) Potentiation occurs, if two chemicals with the same effect when given together produce an effect that is greater in magnitude than the sum of the effects when the chemicals are given individually
(d) Potentiation occurs, if two chemicals with the same effect, when given together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the effect of only one of the drugs given individually
(e) Potentiation occurs, when two chemicals administered together interfere with each other actions or one interferes with the action of the other
SUBSECTION B II – SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs)
INSTRUCTIONS:
I) THERE ARE TWO (2) QUESTIONS IN THIS SUBSECTION
II) ANSWER BOTH QUESTIONS
III) EACH QUESTION HAS BEEN ALLOCATED TEN (10) MINUTES AND TEN (10) MARKS.
SAQ 1. Differentiate the following
(a) Toxication and detoxication
(b) Occupational toxicology and Environmental toxicology
SAQ 2. Define the following terms:
(a) Hazard
(b) Risk
(c) Toxicokinetics
(d) Half-life
SECTION C: BIOCHEMISTRY
(30 Minutes)
SECTION C I: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (10 Minutes)
TYPE III
INSTRUCTIONS:-
(I) EACH OF THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SUBSECTION CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/QUESTION WHOSE MOST APPROPRIATE COMPLETION/ANSWER IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED (a) - (e).
(II) FOR EACH QUESTION SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE APPROPRIATE BOX IN THE ANSWER SHEETS PROVIDED.
(III) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU ONE MARK.
1. Which amino acid can stabilize protein structures by forming covalent cross-links between polypeptide chains?
(a) Methionine
(b) Serine
(c) Glycine
(d) Glutamine
(e) Cysteine
2. Which of the following statements about tertiary structure of a protein is true?
(a) It is the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
(b) It is a spatial arrangement of amino acids that are near each other
(c) It is the tendency of the polypeptide chain to undergo coiling
(d) It is an association of several protein subunits
(e) It is an interaction between ?-helical and ß-sheet structures
3. Which of the following is not a general property of enzymes?
(a) Most enzymes are proteins
(b) Enzymes have great catalytic power
(c) All enzymes can bind specific substrates
(d) The catalytic activity of enzymes can be regulated
(e) All enzymes use hydrophobic site to bind substrates
4. Molecular mechanisms that control the catalytic activituy of enzymes include all of the following except
(a) Feedback inhibition
(b) The binding of regulatory proteins
(c) Covalent modification
(d) Proteolytic cleavage
(e) The binding of hydrophobic site of the enzyme
5. Hydrolysis of maltose yields
(a) Glucsoe + glucose
(b) Glucose + galactose
(c) Galactose + fructose
(d) Glucose + fructose
(e) Glucose + mannose
6. Which sugar is structurally odd among the following?
(a) ?-D-Glucose
(b) ?-D-Galactose
(c) ß-D-Glucose
(d) ?-D-Mannose
(e) ?-D-Fructose
7. Which of the following amino acids dose not have aliphatic side chain?
(a) Glycine
(b) Alanine
(c) Histidine
(d) Leucine
(e) Valine
8. Spontaneous oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids yields
(a) Fatty aldehydes
(b) Acrolein
(c) Drying oils
(d) Ketone bodies
(e) Short chain saturated fatty acids
9. Which of the following fatty acids has highest melting point?
(a) Ricinoleic (10)
(b) Stearic (70)
(c) Arachidonic (-50)
(d) Oleic (11)
(e) Cerebronic (80)
10. Which of the following is a mixed triglyceride?
(a) Oleodipalmitin
(b) Dioleolinolin
(c) Tripalmitin
(d) Dipalmitostearin
(e) Palmitodistearin
SECTION C II: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs) (20 minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:
I) THERE ARE TWO (2) QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
II) ANSWER BOTH QUESTIONS
III) START THE QUESTION ON A SEPARATE PIECE OF PAPER OF THE BOOKLET
SAQ 1. Describe the anomers and epimers of glucose.
(10 minutes)
SAQ 2. Distinguish between the 1st order, the mixed order, and the zero order kinetics of enzyme catalyzed reactions.
(10 minutes)
SECTION D : PHARMACOLOGY (30 Minutes)
SUB-SECTION D I: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (30 minutes)
TYPE III
INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) EACH OF THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT WHOSE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED (a) - (e).
(ii) FOR EACH QUESTION SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE APPROPRIATE BOX IN THE ANSWER SHEETS PROVIDED. IF YOU DO NOT KNOW THE ANSWER, PRINT X IN THE BOX IN THE `D'' COLUMN
(iii) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU PLUS ONE MARK.
1. Pharmacology is
(a) The science concerned with the harmful effects of drugs and other chemicals
(b) The medical science concerned with the use of drugs in the treatment of disease
(c) The biomedical science concerned with the interaction of chemical substances with living cells, tissues and organisms
(d) The science concerned with the preparation, storage, dispensing and proper utilization of drugs
(e) The science concerned with the isolation and characterization of drugs from natural sources
2. Which one of the following descriptions is NOT TRUE of the non proprietary name?
(a) It specifies chemical structure of the drug
(b) It gives information on the class of drug (clarity)
(c) Names are difficult to remember and to spell
(d) It is commonly used in teaching pharmacology to students
(e) Can communicate internationally with other pharmacologists
3. With regard to clinical studies (trials) of new drugs, which of the following is MOST correct?
(a) Phase II studies involves the use of the new drug in a large number of patients (>1000) who have the disease to be treated
(b) Phase III is the general surveillance phase that follows general marketing of the new drug
(c) Phase I studies gather data on drug safety and pharmacokinetics in healthy volunteers
(d) Phase IV studies involves the detailed study of toxic effects of the new drug
(e) Phase III involves the determination of the drug’s therapeutic index by the cautious induction of toxicity
4. All of the following statements about routes of drug administration are true, EXCEPT
(a) Oral route cannot be used for drugs that have a large pass-effect
(b) Intramuscular route is suitable for suspensions and oily vehicles
(c) Intravenous route may introduce contamination
(d) Topical route is restricted to non-irritating drugs
(e) Patients compliance is guaranteed in the oral route of drug administration
5. Disadvantages of intravenous route of drug administration include all the following EXCEPT
(a) Drug can’t be recalled by emesis
(b) Not useful in emergencies
(c) Painful
(d) May induce hemolysis
(e) Need for asepsis
6. Which one of the following factors is LEAST likely to influence drug distribution?
(a) Bioavailability of the drug
(b) Organ blood flow
(c) Lipid solubility
(d) Molecular size
(e) Plasma protein binding
7. With regard to drug transport across biological membranes, active transport
(a) Moves drugs against a concentration gradient
(b) Occurs in only one direction
(c) Is saturable
(d) Is selective for chemical structure
(e) Requires no energy
8. Which of the following statements about phase II biotransformation reactions is NOT TRUE?
(a) They yield water-soluble metabolites
(b) They generally terminate drug action
(c) They may introduce active centers for further conjugation
(d) They are not involved in activating prodrugs
(e) They are also referred to as synthetic reactions
9. Which of the following is NOT a phase I drug – metabolizing reaction?
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Acetylation
(e) Deamination
10. The major route of drug excretion is
(a) Milk
(b) Urine
(c) Tears
(d) Saliva
(e) Feces
11. Elimination half-life of a drug
(a) Is the time required to reduce the plasma drug concentration by 50%
(b) Is the volume of body fluid from which a drug is removed per unit time
(c) Is the rate at which a drug is removed from its site of absorption
(d) Refers to the elimination of a contant fraction of drug per unit time
(e) Is the elimination that occurs after administration but before it reaches the systemic circulation
12. If a drug exhibits first-order elimination kinetics the drugs’ elimination half-life is directly proportional to its
(a) Clearance
(b) Dose
(c) Elimination rate constant
(d) Oral bioavailability
(e) Volume of distribution
13. Which one of the following statements best describes what a drug receptor is?
(a) Plasma albumin can bind to a drug and serve as a drug receptor
(b) Drug receptors play a role in the absorption of a drug
(c) A drug can act as an antagonist even if it is bound to a drug receptor
(d) A drug cannot act unless it is first bound to a receptor
(e) A drug cannot act unless it is first released from a receptor
14. Which one of the following provides information about the largest response a drug can produce regardless of dose?
(a) Drug potency
(b) Therapeutic index
(c) Therapeutic window
(d) Maximal efficacy
(e) Mechanisms of receptor action
15. Which of the following terms best describes a drug that blocks the action of another drug at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them?
(a) Pharmacologic antagonist
(b) Physiologic antagonist
(c) Chemical antagonist
(d) Noncompetitive antagonist
(e) Partial agonist
16. Which of the following terms best describes an antagonist that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all with the receptor?
(a) Pharmacologic antagonist
(b) Chemical antagonist
(c) Noncompetitive antagonist
(d) Partial agonist
(e) Physiologic antagonist
17. Which of the following terms best describes a drug that produces a submaximal response at full receptor occupancy?
(a) Full agonist
(b) Noncompetitive antagonist
(c) Physiologic antagonist
(d) Partial agonist
(e) Inverse agonist
18. Which of the following provides information about the statistical distribution of sensitivity to a drug?
(a) Graded dose-response curve
(b) Drug potency
(c) Therapeutic index
(d) Maximal efficacy
(e) Quantal dose-response curve
19. Pharmacodynamic tolerance is most often due to
(a) Accelerated drug elimination
(b) Decreased receptor density
(c) Decreased affinity of the receptor for a drug
(d) Defective signal transduction
(e) Repeated administration of an antagonist drug
20. Which of the following terms best describes the combined effect of two drugs being greater than the sum of the effect of each drug given alone?
(a) Additive effect
(b) Antagonism
(c) Tolerance
(d) Synergistic effect
(e) Potentiation
SUBSECTION D II - SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs) (10 minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:-
I) THERE IS ONE (1) QUESTION IN THIS SECTION
II) ANSWER THE QUESTION
SAQ 1. Briefly explain the following terms/concepts:
(a) Pharmacodynamics
(b) Bioavailability of a drug
(c) Drug absorption
(d) Competitive antagonist
SECTION E: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY (30 minutes)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)
TYPE 3
INSTRUCTIONS:
I) MCQ TYPE 3 QUESTIONS – ONLY ONE ANSWER IS CORRECT. EACH IS 1 (ONE) MINUTE EACH
II) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS (QTN 5 – 8)
III) 1 & 2 20 minutes
1. As for Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
(a) He modified simple microscope to compound microscope
(b) He developed gram staining techniques
(c) He discovered tooth decay
(d) He was the first to use a microscope to view microorganism
(e) He classified viruses
2. The following debunked spontaneous generation of organisms except
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Joseph Lister
(d) Walter Reed
(e) Alexander Fleming
3. In preparation of specimen for staining “Heat fixing” achieves the following except
(a) Kills organims
(b) Causes specimen adherence to slide
(c) Makes organisms readily accept stains
(d) Increase the size of the organism
(e) Destroy capsules
4. In modern compound microscopy; Light follows the following path:
(a) Light source Iriss diaphragm Condenser specimen
objective lens Body tube Ocular lens
(b) Light source condenser specimen objective lens Iris
diaphragm Body tube Ocular lens
(c) Light source Condenser It is diaphragm Body tube specimen objective lens Ocular lens
(d) Light source Condenser Irisdiaphragm specimen
Objective lens Body tube Ocular lens
(e) Light source Body tube Condense r Iris diaphragm
Specimen Objective lens Ocular lens
For Questions 5,6,7, and 8. choose the most appropriate. Match from column B with corresponding statement on column A.
Q 5. (i) Cells stains purple (a) Iodine
Q 6. (ii) Mordant (b) Neutral Red
Q 7. (iii) Decolorizor (c) Crystal Violet
Q 8. (iv) Stain gram negative cells (d) Alcohol
(e) Malachite green
Q 9. Viruses have the following characteristics except
(a) Obligate Intracellular
(b) Can infect bacteria
(c) Lack cell wall
(d) Posseses ribosomes
(e) Measured in nanometers
Q 10. Primary characteristics on International Classification and Nomenclature of Viruses (ICNV) include the following except
(a) Chemical Nature of Nucleic acid
(b) Size of the Virion
(c) Host range
(d) Site of replication
(e) Presence /Absence of envelope
Q 11. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) belongs to:
(a) Filovividae
(b) Retrovividae
(c) Calcivividae
(d) Poxvinidae
(e) Orthomyxovividae
Q 12. The following are DNA viruses except
(a) Adenoviruses
(b) Herpes viruses
(c) Hepadnaviruses
(d) Rhabdoviruses
(e) Poxviruses
Q 13. The following are true of fungi except
(a) Have mycelia
(b) May live as saproplytes
(c) Eukaryotic organisms
(d) Belong to monera kingdom
(e) Have nuclear membrane
Q 14. Toxic Mushrooms belong to the following class of fungi
(a) Fungi imperfecta
(b) Basidiomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes
(d) Zygomycetes
(e) Deuteromycetes
Q 15. Morphological classification of fungi may come up with the following groups of fungi except
(a) Moulds
(b) Fungi Imperfecta
(c) Yeasts
(d) Yeast like fungi
(e) Dimorphic fungi
SUBSECTION E - SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs) (10 minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:-
I) THERE ARE TWO (2) QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
II) ANSWER BOTH QUESTIONS
III) START EACH QUESTION ON A FRESH PIECE OF PAPER OF THE BOOKLET.
SAQ 1. Briefly describe with the specific examples the following terms.
(i) Parasitism
(2 minutes)
(ii) Mutualism
(2 minutes)
(iii) Comensalism
(2 minutes)
SAQ 2. Describe broadly the main characteristic features of cestodes.
(4 minutes)
SECTION F - RADIOLOGY AND IMAGING
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs) (30 Minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:
I) THERE ARE THREE (3) QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
II) ANSWER ALL THE THREE (3) QUESTIONS
III) START EACH QUESTION ON A FRESH PIECE OF PAPER OF THE BOOKLET.
SAQ 1. Describe sound, its properties and uses in medicine
(10 minutes)
SAQ 2. Describe with the help of an annotated diagram, the production of X-rays.
(15 minutes)
SAQ 3. List five (5) examples of electro-magnetic waves
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