Medb 212:Medical Microbiology Question Paper
Medb 212:Medical Microbiology
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: Kenya Methodist University question papers
Exam Year:2013
KENYA METHODIST UNIVERSITY
DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
END OF FIRST YEAR MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY I EXAMINATION
BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB)
JULY 2013
MEDB 212
PAPER II MAIN EXAM
2 HOURS
(MCQs)
Question One
The following is a type of flagella arrangement in bacteria
Peritrichous
Bulgina
Amphitrichous
Lophotrichous
Fimbriations
Question Two
Which of the following micro-organisms are non-motile?
Proteus vulgaris
Salmonella gallinarum
Salmonella pollurum
Shigella sonnei
Klebsiella sonnei
Question Three
Cell wall of bacteria is composed of
Enzymes
Plasmids
Peptidoglycan
Lipoprotein & Lipopolysaccharides
Techoic acids.
Question Four
Bacterial endospore are?
Heat sensitive
Source of stored food
Vegetative bacteria
Heat stable
Pathogenic under proper environmental conditions
Question Five
Which of the following diseases are associated with salmonella infections?
Septicemia
Enteric fever
Gastro-enteritis
Cystitis
Polyarthritis
Question Six
Which of the following statements about Shigella is TRUE?
All shigella species are motile
All shigella species are non-motile
All shigella species are catalase positive
All shigella species are lactose fermenters
All shigella species are indole producers
Question Seven
The word ’Virion’ refers to:-
Infectious virus particles
Non-infectious particles
Incomplete particles
Enveloped virus particles
Defective virus particles
Question Eight
Gram staining is an example of
Simple staining
Differential staining
Negative staining
Capsule staining
None of these
Question Nine
Viruses that attack bacteria are
Bacterial viruses
Bacterial pathogens
Bactriophages
Viral pathogens
Capsids
Question Ten
All of the following organisms are motile EXCEPT?
Escherichia coli
Citrobacter freundii
Salmonella gallinarum
Salmonella pulorum
Salmonella typhimurium
Question Eleven
The following species of salmonella do not have vi antigens EXCEPT
Salmonella typhimurium
Salmonella typhi
Salmonella paratyphi A
Salmonella paratyphi B
Salmonella paratyphi C
Question Twelve
The differences between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is shown to reside in the
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Nucleus
Capsule
Mesosomes
Question Thirteen
Which of the following bacteria are deficient of cell wall?
Mycoplasma
’L’ form
Rickettsia
Protoplast
Spheroplast
Question Fourteen
The conditions required for autoclave are?
121oc and 15 pounds pressure for 20 min
120oc and 20 pounds pressure for 30 min
150oc for 1 hour
130oc for 2 hours
100oc for 20 min
Question Fifteen
Salmonella typhi is the causative agent for
Undulant fever
Remittent fever
Dengue fever
Traveller’s diarrhea
Enteric fever
Question Sixteen
The following infections caused by Escherichia coli, except
Urinary tract infections
Septic infections of wounds
Diarrhea
Dysentery
Meningitis
Question Seventeen
Endotoxins are?
Heat stable
Heat labile
Highly antigenic
Specific in their action
Intracellular toxins
Question Eighteen
Which of the following organism’s posses flagella?
Salmonella typhi
Klebsiella pneumonia
Vibrio cholera
Streptococcus pyogenes
Shigella dysenteriae
Question Nineteen
The ability to damage tissues is
Pathogenicity
Virulence
Invasiveness
Toxicity
Pathogen
Question Twenty
Septicaemia refers to
Bacteria in blood
Toxin in blood
Pus in blood
Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
Pathogens in the circulation
Question Twenty One
One principal function of complement is to
Inactivate perforins
Mediate the release of histamine
Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells.
Phagocytize antigens
Cross link allergens
Question Twenty Two
The major role of the complement system is to work in conjunction with
Antibodies to lyse cells via the C8 and C9 components
The major histocompatibility complex for cell recognition
Antibodies to opsonize cells
The T-cell receptor for production of lymphokines
Antibodies to lyse cells via the perforin molecules.
Question Twenty Three
Immunology is the study of
Treatment of allergies
Treatment of infectious diseases
Treatment of allergies and infectious diseases
None of the above
Question Twenty Four
Hyperthyroidism refers to
Rickets
Sickle cells disease
Beriberi
Grave’s disease
Question Twenty Five
Decrease in the number of neutrophils in the blood is termed as
Asthma
Neutropenia
Diphthelia
Heparin
Question Twenty Six
Which type of cells is infected by human immune-deficiency virus in the initial phase?
T cells
B cells
NK cells
Epithelial cells
Question Twenty Seven
Who is the father of immunology?
Anton Van Leuven hook
Louis Pasteur
Robert Koch
Paul Ehrlich
Question Twenty Eight
What is the common name for a CD8 + T cells
Cytotoxic B cell
Natural killer cell
Plasma T cell
Cytotoxic T cell
Question Twenty Nine
What are the three enzymes of the HIV virus which are key for the virus to multiply?
Endozyme, Virozyme and Cytozyme
Enzyme A, Enzyme B and Enzyme C
None of the names shown
Reverse transcriptase, Intergrase and protease
Question Thirty
What effect does histamine have on capillaries?
The cytoplasmic cells spread out allowing blood to flow through
The cytotoxic cells squeeze together not allowing blood through
The endothelial cells spread out allowing blood cells to squeeze
None of the above
Question Thirty One
Secondary immune response is generated due to
Naive B cells
Memory cells
Naïve T cells
NK cells
Question Thirty Two
Histamine secretion by degranulation from which cell leads to immediate hypersensitivity
B cells
T helper cells
Basophils
Mast cells
Question Thirty Three
In SCID, there is
Low Igm
Low number of neutrophis
Low number of T cells or B cells
Low number of macrophages
Question Thirty Four
Lymphatic systems are primarily associated with
Lymph recycling
Phagocytosis
Acquired immunity
Innate immunity
Question Thirty Five
Goucher disease where glucocerebroside are not degraded is related to
Golgi apparatus
ER
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Question Thirty Six
Which of the following is not coded by MHC genes
Glycoproteins
Antigens presenting proteins
Complements of complement pathway
Immunoglobulins
Question Thirty Seven
Which function is not related with Th1 Cells?
Secretion of IL2
Induce phagocytosis
Activated B cells
Promoting antibody binding to soluble antigens
Question Thirty Eight
Vaccines are prepared from killed microbes, they are
Inactivated vaccine
Attenuated vaccine
Autogenous vaccine
None of these
Question Thirty Nine
If the microbes used in the vaccine are obtained from patient, they are?
Anti-viral vaccines
Anti-bacterial vaccines
Autogenous vaccines
None of these
Question Forty
Examples for line vaccine is
Rubella and BCG
Polio and TAB
Diphtheria and Tetanus
Hepatitis A and Rabies
Question Forty One
In bacterial genome, purine are made of
Cytosine and Thymine
Adenine and guanine
Cytosine and guanine
Adenine and thymine
Question Forty Two
Hazardous material contaminated with mycobacteria can be disinfected efficiently with
Chlohexidine
Iodine
Phenol derivatives
QAC
Question Forty Three
The following is not a commensal
Aspergillus Spp
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Candida albican
Diptitheroids
Question Forty Four
A stool specimen is best transported in
Normal saline
Boric acid
Nutrient broth
Cary blair media
Question Forty Five
The mode of action in disinfectant can be affected by all these EXCEPT
Cost
Presence of organic matter
Type of contaminating microbe
Time and temperature
Question Forty Six
Dry heat sterilization excludes which method
Hot air oven
Flaming
Autoclaving
Incineration
Question Forty Seven
In scientific nomenclature, all of the following statements are false EXCEPT>
Either generic or a species epithet must be used
Abbreviations are not allowed
Names of all taxa are printed in bold and underlined.
Name of categories above the genus may be used alone.
Question Forty Eight
Acquisition of naked DNA from the environment by another bacteria is known as?
Transduction
Transcription
Transformation
Translation
Question Forty Nine
Fluoroquinolines and Metronidazoles
Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Alter cell membrane integrity
Inhibit cell wall synthesis
Inhibit protein synthesis
Question Fifty
Match the terms in column A with descriptions in column B. (Insert single answer in the brackets provided.)
COLUMN (A) COLUMN (B)
( ) 1. Disease A. Structural alteration in a tissue or organ
( ) 2. Lesion B. The cause of disease
( ) 3. Symptom C. Objective clinical finding
( ) 4. Pathogenesis D. The study of the cause of a disease
( ) 5. Prognosis E. Subjective complaint of the patient.
( ) 6. Etiology F. Disturbance of body structure and or function
G. A prediction of the likely outcome of a disease
H. The mechanism by which a disease is caused.
Question Fifty One
The following is not a method of antimicrobial sensitivity testing
Kirby – Bower method
Agar – Breakpoint method
Most probable number
Minimum inhibitory concentration
Question Fifty Two
Super antigens are produced by
Clostridium tetani
Ecoli
Yesinia
Staphylococcus aurous
Question Fifty Three
The following test differentiates streptococci and staptylococci spp.
IMVIC
Catalase
Gram stain
Growth on blood agar
Question Fifty Four
A fungus is similar to bacteria in which aspect?
Fungi are prokaryotic
Bacterial have ergosterol in the cell membrane
Fungi cell wall has teichoic acid
Some fungi and some bacteria may have a capsule
Question Fifty Five
In the Novobiocin test
Staphylococcus aureus is resistant
Staphylococcus epidermidis is resistant
Staphylococcus saprophuticus is resistant
Staphylococcus saprophyticus is susceptible
Question Fifty Six
This bacteria genera is not associated with
Escherichia
Salmonella
Shigella
Yesinia
Question Fifty Seven
The following genera has gram negative cocci
Neisseria spp
Haemophillus spp
Bacillus spp
Streptococcus spp
Question Fifty Eight
In developing countries the major cause of bacillary dysentery is
Shigella flexneri
Shigella somnei
Shigella dysenteriae
Shigella boydii
Question Fifty Nine
Clinically the following is not associated with Shigellosis
Tenesmus
Chronic infection
Blood and mucoid stool
Fractional stool
Question Sixty
Yersinia Pestis is similar to YeRsinia encerocolitica in this ways except
Bipolar staining pathogens
Transmitted by arthropods
Gram negative rods
Zoonati
Question Sixty One
The pthirus spp parasitic to humans can effectively be controlled in one of the following methods.
Deworming
Exposure to boiling water
Deprivation of the environment for attachment
Application of petroleum jelly
Question Sixty Two
One of the following is the reproduction method of Glossina, which one
Laying eggs under free foliage
Giving birth to a 1st instar fly
Larviposting in soft soil
By pathenogenic mode
Question Sixty Three
One of the drugs listed below can not be used for treating Schistosomiasis:
Oxamnoquine
Bayluscide
Metrifonate
Praziquantel
Question Sixty Four
Which one of the following organisms can be used as a successful control agent of mosquito larvae?
Gambusia species
Procamburas species
Potoman crabs
The nile perch
Question Sixty Five
Which one of the following clinical signs is not indicative of infection with trypanosomiasis?
Skin itchiness
Speech disorder
Oriental sore
Swollen lymph nodes
Question Six Six
The stool Kato-Katz examination method is a good quantitative methods for all the parasite listed below except
Ascaris lubricoides
Trichuris trichiura
Giardia lamblia
Schistosoma mansoni
Question Sixty Seven
Which one of the following is true of larvae of aedes mosquitoes?
Lie parallel to the water surface when at rest
Are not a feeding stage of development
Have a long breathing tube
Develop most appropriately in pit latrines
Question Sixty Eight
The following organs, except one, may enlarge due to infection with Lymphatic filariasis.
Scrotum
Vulva
Limbs
Lungs
Question Sixty Nine
Which of the following is the only pork tapeworm?
Taenia saginata
Hymenolepis diminuta
Taenia solium
Echinococcus granulosus
Question Seventy
In the life cycte of the hydatid disease, one of the following is regarded as a dead-end intermediate host.
Sheep
Cow
Goat
Human being
Question Seventy One
The following drugs can be used for treating ascaris except one
Albendazole
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Oxamnoquine
Question Seventy Two
Heavy infection with hookworms may cause the following conditions except one
Iron deficiency anaemia
Loss of blood
Low birth weight
Hepatomegaly
Question Seventy Three
One method of separating ancylostoma duodonale from Necator americanus is?
Ancylostoma duodenale has a pair of cutting plates on the mouthparts.
It is haemaphroditic.
It has two pairs of teeth on its mouth parts.
It has two oral suckers
Question Seventy Four
The following statements are correct about Trichinella Spiralis except one
Female is viviparous
Male is much smaller than female
Muscle biopsy provides the best diagnosis
Eggs hatch in the duodenum.
Question Seventy Five
Which one of the following symptoms is not characteristic of Amoebiasis infection?
Amoebic dysentery
Liver abscess
Dysentery
Megacolon
Question Seventy Six
The following are asexual reproduction processes of protozoa except one?
Schizogony
Binary fission
Budding
Syngamy
Question Seventy Seven
The following parasites are said to be non-pathogenic except one. Which?
Dientamoeba fragilis
Entamoeba coli
Iodumoeba butschlli
Entamoeba dispar
Question Seventy Eight
The following are referred to as determinants of malaria transmission except which one?
Human host
Environment
The parasite
Female culex mosquito
Question Seventy Nine
One of the following is not critical in malaria control
Vector control
Strict personal hygiene
Preventive measures
Patient treatment
Question Eighty
The following populations are considered to be at higher risk of contracting malaria except one
Patients with HIV/AIDs
Non-immune travelers
Pregnant women
All adults in stable (endemic) malaria areas.
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