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Medb 212:Medical Microbiology Question Paper
Medb 212:Medical Microbiology
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: Kenya Methodist University question papers
Exam Year:2013
KENYA METHODIST UNIVERSITY
DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
END OF FIRST YEAR MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY I EXAMINATION
BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB)
AUGUST 2013 (SUPPLEMENTARY)
MEDB 212: MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY I
2 HOURS
DATE: 11TH JULY 2013
Question One
All of the following are true with respect to 1gM antibodies EXCEPT which one?
They fix complement
They occur on the surface of lymphocytes
They predominate in the primary response to antigen
They mediate allergic reaction.
Question Two
One principal function of the class I and class II major histocompatibility complex S proteins is to
Mediate immunoglobin class switching
Present antigen for recognition by the T-cell antigen receptor
Stimulate production of interleukins
Bind complement
Question Three
T-cell antigen receptors are distinguished from antibodies by which of the following?
T-cell receptors are glycosylated
T-cell receptors must interact with antigen presented by other cells but not with free antigen
T-cell receptors bind various cytokines
T-cell receptors bind complement to lyse cells
Question Four
What is the most common technique to stop the spread of infections in a population?
Blocking the mode of entry
Stopping the mode of transmission
Blocking the exit point
Opening the mode of entry
Question Five
AIDs (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by
Human Immuno Virus
Human Papilloma virus
Human immune-deficiency virus
None of the above
Question Six
Antibody proteins are also known as:
Globulins
Toxins
Immunoglobulins
Immunodeficiency
Question Seven
What are the common names for CD4+Tcells?
Helper T cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Plasma T cells
Cytotoxic B cells
Question Eight
Why are T Lymphocytes called so?
Because they lack thymine in their DNA
Because it is easier to remember then CD +T cells?
Because they mature in the Thymus
Because they were discovered by Timothy Thomson.
Question Nine
What is the name of the cells that release histamine?
Leukocyte
Lymphocyte
Mast cell
Trophoblastular molecular enzyme
Question Ten
Most cells have receptor for
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgM
Question Eleven
Which of the following cell possess polymorph nucleus
B-cells
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Erythrocytes
Question Twelve
Which cell is involved in antigen clearance non-specifically before engulfing them.
B-cells
Cytotoxic T cells
T-cells
Phagocytic cells
Question Thirteen
Which of the following vaccine does not provide life time protection
Polio
Tetanus
DPT
Small Pox
Question Fourteen
Hematopoietic stem cells are found in
Skin
Spleen
Bone marrow
Payers’ patches
Question Fifteen
Which antibody is known to be responsible for allergic reactions?
IgM
IgA
IgE
gD
Question Sixteen
Which is least likely to occur for removal of cancer cells?
Phagocytosis
Complement fixation
T-cell based cytotoxicity
Autophagy
Question Seventeen
Immunotoxins are?
Anti-toxins
Antibody for specific antigen tagged with toxin
Low immunogenic toxin
Bacterial toxins
Question Eighteen
Vaccines used against viral infections are
Measles and Mumps vaccine
Cholera vaccine
Typhoid vaccine
Anti-rickettsia vaccine
Question Nineteen
Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are
Cellular vaccines
Sub-cellular vaccines
Attenuated vaccines
Heterologous vaccines
Question Twenty
DPT is given for the prevention of?
Diphtheria, Tetanus
Diphtheria, Pertusis
Diphtheria, Tetanus & Pertussis
None of these
Question Twenty One
The following nucleic materials catalyze the assembly of amino acids in bacteria into polypeptide chains.
Transfer RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Messenger RNA
Codon 2
Question Twenty Two
Resistance to antibiotic can be due to all these factors except?
Mutation of capsule
Descend uptake of drug
Enzymatic modification
Active efflux of drug
Question Twenty Three
In Koch’s postulate
Susceptible experimental humans are inoculated
A specific causative agent may be found in every case of disease
A mixed culture is maintained
Same bacterium should be re-isolated in pure culture as in the disease host.
Question Twenty Four
The Scientist who observed a microbe for the first time under a microscope is?
Robert hook
Louis Pasteur
Robert Koch
Anton Van Leewen Hoek
Question Twenty Five
In comparison to bacteria, a virus has
Cell wall
Capsule
Envelope
Teichoic acid
Question Twenty Six
This is not a selective media
Tryptone soy broth
Mac Conkey
Mannitol salt agar
Eosin methylene blue agar
Question Twenty Seven
Most heat sterilization can be evaluated biologically by use of
Bacillus subtilis
Bacillus pumilus
Bacillus stereothermophilis
Pseudomonas diminuta
Question Twenty Eight
Among antibiotics inhibiting protein synthesis, this is not one of them
Chloramphenical
Glycopeptides
Macrolides
Aminoglycosides
Question Twenty Nine
Match the mutations in column (A) to the description in column B.
Column A Column B
1. Transition 2 A. Purine replaced by purine
2. Transversion B. Reading frame is altered
3. Nonsense C. Purine replaced by pyuimidine
4. Frame shift D. Introduction of a stop codon in sequence
5. Deletion E. Removal of an entire gene
6. Missense F. A change with no change in amino acid
encoded by protein.
G. A change resulting in a different amino acid
being produced.
Question Thirty
Staphylococcus aureus is not associated with
Mastitis
Enteric fever
Food poisoning
Toxic shock syndrome
Question Thirty One
It is true that the pathogen causing plague
Can be ingested
Is a potential bioterrorism bacterium
Is a gram positive rod.
Should be handled under level 1 laboratory
Question Thirty Two
Shigella species
Are non-lactose fermenters
Produces H2S
Do not grow on XLD agar
The TSI negative
Question Thirty Three
This test is not used for routine identification of staphylococci.
Coagulase
Catalase
Oxidase
Clumping factor
Question Thirty Four
Endotoxins differ from exotoxin, in that they are
Heat labile
Not convertible to toxoids
Produce fever
Are secreted by bacteria cells
Question Thirty Five
The bacteria have a typical cell wall
Rickettsia
Mycoplasma
Spirochaete
Vibrio
Question Thirty Six
The peptidoglycan layer is made up of
N-acetylteichoic acid
N – acetylglucosamine
N- acetyllipid A
N – acetyl lipoteichoic acid
Question Thirty Seven
Sulfonamides
Inhibit metabolic pathways
Inhibit DNA synthesis
Lyse cytoplasmic membrane
Inhibit protein synthesis
Question Thirty Eight
In Kirby Bauer method of drug susceptibility testing
A variety of media can be used
Control organism is used
Standardization is not necessary
Mueller hinton agar is preferred
Question Thirty Nine
Which definition is true
Spirochaetes are flexible curved rods
Diplobacilli are cocci in pairs
Coccobacilli are curved rods
Sarcinae are cube-like group of eight cocci.
Question Forty
The following is an Enterobactericeae
Yersinia spp
Pseudomanas spp
Bordetella spp
Lactobacillus spp
Question Forty One
The following medication is recommended for treating uncomplicated malaria.
Dihydoquinoline
Amodiaquine
Praziquantel
Artemether-lumefantrine
Question Forty Two
One of the following organisms can be used as a biological control agent for anopheles mosquito larvae. Which one?
Malophaga
Pracamburus clarkii
Gambusia affinis
Crysops
Question Forty Three
Schistosomiasis occurs in all areas mentioned below except one. Which?
Queensland in Australia
The arabian peninsula
Parts of Equatorial Africa
Some carribean islands.
Question Forty Four
Pulmonary symptoms (Loeffler’s syndrome) in ascariasis occur, when?
Migration of adult worms to the bowel
Worms obstruct the intestines
Larvae of ascaris penetrate the lung alveoli
Egg laying commences
Question Forty Five
Stereorarian mode of disease transmission is through
Injection into the host by insect proboscis
The oral route by contaminated hands
Defeacation by the vector near site of bite
Larval penetration through the skin.
Question Forty Six
Necator americanus can be separated from Ancylostoma duodenale by one of the following
Having four pairs of cutting teeth
Having two pairs of pseudoplates
Having one pair of cutting plates
Having four pairs of suckers
Question Forty Seven
The following organisms are flagellate except one
Giardia lamblia
Trichomonas vaginalis
Iodomoeba butchlii
Trypanosome gambiense
Question Forty Eight
The following are cestodes except one
Echinoccocus
Schistosomes
Diphylobothrium
Taenia
Question Forty Nine
Exflagillation of male gametes assists in the formation of one of the following
Ookinite
Oocyte
Zygote
Zymodemes
Question Fifty
Two of the following malaria parasites form hypnozoites in the liver cells
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
Question Fifty One
Malaria can be transmitted to human through two of the following methods.
Injection by the female anopheles mosquito
Injection by aedes mosquito
Blood transfusion
Injection by culex mosquitoes
Question Fifty Two
The following specimens except one, are examined for laboratory diagnosis of trypanasomes
Peripheral blood
Lymph node biopsy
Biopsy of the spleen
Biopsy of the kidney
Question Fifty Three
Which one of the following mosquitoes does not transmit lymphatic filariasis in Kenya?
Anopheles merus
Culex quinquefasciatus
Anopheles gambiae
Aedes egypti
Question Fifty Four
The following are "tell-take" symptoms of wuchereria infection in man except one
Hydrocoele
Chyluria
Elephantiasis
Bloody urine
Question Fifty Five
One of the following is a vector of onchocerciasis
Simulium
Crysops
Cyclops
Glossina
Question Fifty Six
Which of the following statements is correct about the male drucuncula worm after mating?
It moves back into the intestines
It forms onchocercoma on the host’s head
It dies
It forms calabar swellings in the intestines
Question Fifty Seven
One of the following statements about medically important flukes is false. Which one?
Some inhabit the liver of their hosts
Some live in the bloodstream of their hosts
Some live in the intestines of their hosts
Some inhabit the cerebral-spinal fluid of their hosts.
Question Fifty Eight
The following pathological conditions, except one, may be caused by heavy paracetemia with hookworms.
Anaemia
Children growth retardation
Haematuria
Fatigue, weakness and diarrhoea
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