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Human Anatomy Question Paper
Human Anatomy
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: University Of Nairobi question papers
Exam Year:2011
UNIVERSITY OF NAIROBI
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN ANATOMY
END OF QUARTER 1: MBChB I & BDS I
Date: Thursday, 15th December 2011 Time: 9.00 AM – 11:00AM.
Instructions
• Write your registration number on the answer sheet given
• Answer all questions
• Write all your responses in the answer sheet
• Use an ‘X’ in the correct box on your answer sheet
1. Armando is involved in a road traffic crush and injures his right hip, A review by an orthopaedic surgeon reveals a posterior dislocation of the hip. Which of the following structures is MOST likely to be torn?
A. Iliofemoral ligament
B. Rectus femoris muscle
C. Femoral nerve
D. Ischiofemoral ligament
2. The neurovascular supply to the gluteus maximus muscle includes all these EXCEPT?
A. Superior gluteal artery
B. Superior gluteal nerve
C. Inferior gluteal nerve
D. Inferior gluteal artery
Jane is a 76 year old female who presents with a left groin swelling. She is noted to have distended veins on the abdomen just below the umbilicus. She is diagnosed to have a hernia. Use this information to answer questions 3 and 4.
3. Which of the following IS NOT a boundary of the ring through which this herniation took place?
A. Femoral vein
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Lacunar ligament
D. Pectineus muscle
4. Which of these is the MOST likely abdominal vein that is distended?
A. Superficial epigastric
B. Superficial circumflex iliac
C. Deep external pudendal
D. Superficial external pudendal
5. Dr Kazimoto wants to remove blood from the femoral vein for blood gas measurement. Which of the following IS NOT useful in helping him safely draw the blood?
A. Locate the anterior superior iliac spine
B. Locate the mid-inguinal point
C. Palpate for the femoral artery
D. Insert the needle lateral to the femoral artery pulsation
6. Judy is experiencing a burning sensation on the medial aspect of her knee. Which of the following nerves is responsible for this sensation?
A. Saphenous
B. Nerve to Vastus medialis
C. Posterior branch of Obturator
D. Tibial
7. Regarding the sub-sartorial canal, which statement is NOT TRUE?
A. Extends from the apex of the femoral triangle
B. The femoral artery lies anterior to the vein distally
C. Nerve to Vastus medialis is a content
D. Adductor Magnus muscle forms the posterior wall proximally
8. Which of the following DOES NOT describe the extensor mechanism of the knee
A. Is an antigravity mechanism
B. Patella tendon is a component
C. Failure is diagnosed by inability to flex the knee joint
D. Is strengthened by Sartorius muscle medially
9. Which of the following structures does NOT arise from the anterior iliac spines?
A. Sartorius
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Iliofemoral ligament
D. Vastus lateralis
10. Which one of the following is a dynamic hip joint stabilizer?
A. Labrum acetabulare
B. Iliofemoral ligament
C. Ligamentum teres capitis femoris
D. Gluteus medius
11. The main artery that supplies the head of femur is?
A. Superior gluteal
B. Inferior gluteal
C. Obturator
D. Medial circumflex femoral
12. Oparakadia has the following complaints to his nurse: numbness on the lower lateral aspect of the leg, weak eversion of the foot and dorsiflexion. Which single of the following nerves is MOST LIKELY to be involved?
A. Sural
B. Superficial peroneal
C. Common peroneal
D. Tibial
13. Which muscle is matched CORRECTLY with the nerve that supplies it?
A. Rectus femoris – Saphenous nerve
B. Adductor longus – Sciatic nerve
C. Peroneus longus – Deep peroneal nerve
D. Pectineus – Obturator nerve
14. Which of the following nerves is located in the femoral sheath?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Nerve to iliacus
C. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
D. Anterior division of Obturator nerve
15. Karis has an infected wound on the lateral dorsal aspect of his left foot. Which of the following primary lymph nodes is MOST likely to be inflamed because of this wound?
A. Left popliteal
B. Deep inguinal
C. Right superficial inguinal
D. Node of Cloquet
16. The main source of blood supply to thigh muscles is the?
A. Profunda femoris
B. Trochanteric anastomosis
C. Superficial femoral
D. Cruciate anastomosis
17. Choose the INCORRECT statement about knee menisci
A. Aid joint lubrication
B. The lateral one is more circular
C. The marginal parts are more vascular than the central parts
D. The medial one is attached to meniscofemoral ligaments
18. A maid presents to an orthopaedic surgeon with anterior knee pain. She is told that she has bursitis. Which of the bursae listed is MOST LIKELY to be involved?
A. Suprapatella
B. Superficial infrapatella
C. Prepatella
D. Bursa anserinus
19. About cruciate ligaments, choose the INCORRECT statement.
A. The anterior is composed of two bundles
B. The posterior has a proprioceptive function
C. The anterior is attached to the medial femoral condyle
D. The anterior prevents posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia
20. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding knee joint stability?
A. Gluteal maximus muscle contributes
B. Menisci are important in the load-bearing phase
C. Collateral ligaments prevent lateral & medial (valgus-varus) bending
D. Popliteus muscle locks & unlocks the joint
21. Drogba is tackled and sustains injury to his right leg. One of the leg compartments is tense and has a lot of pain. Dr Masumbuko notes that the area of dorsal skin between the 1st and 2nd toes has no sensation to pain. Which compartment is involved in this syndrome?
A. Posterior superficial
B. Lateral
C. Anterior
D. Posterior deep
22. Which of the following BEST explains why distal tibial fractures heal comparatively slowly?
A. A proximal nutrient artery
B. Relatively thinner distally
C. Poor muscle cover
D. Absence of periosteum distally
23. The nutrient artery to the fibula arises from which of the following arteries?
A. Posterior tibial
B. Anterior tibial
C. Peroneal
D. Dorsalis pedis
24. A popliteal (Baker’s) cyst arises from synovial membrane through the posterior knee capsule. Which of the following structures is MOST likely to be compressed by this cyst first?
A. Popliteal artery
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Sural nerve
D. Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
25. Which of the following muscles is still fleshy at the ankle joint?
A. Extensor hallucis longus
B. Extensor digitorum longus
C. Peroneus longus
D. Flexor hallucis longus
26. Iniesta complains of right knee pain. He reports no history of trauma to the knee in his life. X-rays reveal a ‘crack’ in the patella. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a description of his condition?
A. He has a bipartite patella
B. He has a tripartite patella
C. This is a congenital anomaly
D. The crack seen is cartilage within the patella substance
27. Modifications of fascia cruris include all these EXCEPT?
A. Extensor retinaculum
B. Lateral intermuscular septum
C. Plantaris tendon
D. Posterior intermuscular septum
28. The summit of the longitudinal arch of the foot is formed by?
A. Calcaneus
B. Navicular
C. Talus
D. Metatarsal heads
29. An example of a bowstring in maintenance of the longitudinal arch of the foot is?
A. Peroneus longus tendon
B. Tibialis posterior tendon
C. Plantar aponeurosis
D. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
30. A march fracture is a stress fracture in the foot. It is commonly seen in soldiers and is caused by a bone taking up cyclic loads over a period of time. The bone commonly involved is?
A. Talar neck
B. Navicular tuberosity
C. 2nd metatarsal
D. Cuboid.
31. The deltoid ligament is attached to all these EXCEPT?
A. Navicular tuberosity
B. Medial malleolus
C. Sustentaculum tali
D. Sinus tarsi
32. The KEY structure that holds the ankle mortise together is the?
A. Interosseous membrane
B. Deltoid and lateral ligaments
C. Distal lower extremity syndesmosis
D. Talar trochlear
33. Concerning extension of the toes, choose the BEST description of the process.
A. Long extensor tendons stabilize the hood
B. Long flexor tendons are involved passively
C. Lumbricals fine tune the movement
D. A, B and Care all true
34. Choose the CORRECT match between the area of the lower limb and its corresponding dermatome.
AREA DERMATOME
A. Lateral leg L4
B. Medial leg L5
C. Knee L3
D. Femoral triangle S1
35. The MOST important factor in venous return of the entire lower limb is?
A. Venae commitantes
B. Unidirectional valves
C. Muscle pumps
D. Sympathetic nervous system
36. The MOST appropriate site of a venous cut-down along the great saphenous vein in the lower limb is?
A. Mid-leg
B. Medial knee
C. Just superior to the medial malleolus
D. Saphenous opening
37. The location of valves in all these areas is crucial in prevention of backflow and hence development of varicose veins in the lower limb EXCEPT?
A. Junction between small saphenous and popliteal veins
B. Junction between great saphenous and femoral vein
C. In the perforators
D. Junction between the femoral and external iliac veins
38. In cases where the anterior tibial artery does not continue to become dorsalis pedis, which of the following arteries commonly substitutes it?
A. Posterior tibial
B. Peroneal
C. Artery of the sinus tarsi
D. Calcaneal branch of posterior tibial
39. Which of the following arteries does NOT contribute to the formation of the cruciate anastomosis?
A. Superior gluteal
B. Inferior gluteal
C. Profunda femoris
D. 1st perforator
40. Which of the following arteries contributing to the genicular anastomosis arises from the femoral artery?
A. Superior medial genicular
B. Circumflex fibular
C. Descending genicular
D. Anterior tibial recurrent
41. The root value of the common peroneal nerve is
A. L3,4,5
B. L4,5 S1
C. L4,5 S1,2
D. L4,5 S1,2,3
42. The most medial muscle to form the floor of the femoral triangle is?
A. Pectineus
B. Psoas major
C. Iliacus
D. Adductor longus
43. The muscle that aligns the pull of flexor digitorum longus on the toes is?
A. Flexor digitorum brevis
B. Flexor accessories
C. Abductor digiti minimi
D. Interrosei
44. Immaculate sustains a burn of the lateral aspect of the foot during pedicure. Which of the following nerves transmits the pain she is experiencing from this site of the foot?
A. Saphenous
B. Superficial peroneal
C. Lateral cutaneous of the calf
D. Sural
45. The following muscle will be paralyzed following femoral nerve injury EXCEPT?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Pectineus
C. Vastus medialis
D. Sartorius
46. The following is structures is LEAST likely to be injured in posterior hip dislocation
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Quadratus femoris
C. Superior gluteal nerve
D. Inferior gluteal artery
47. The following are true regarding the distribution of the medial planter nerve EXCEPT?
A. Lumbrical to the 2nd toe
B. Flexor hallucis brevis
C. Flexor digiti minimi brevis
D. Planter skin of the 4th toe
48. The following are supplied by the dorsal scapular nerve EXCEPT?
A. Serratus posterior superior
B. Rhomboid major
C. Rhomboideus minor
D. Lavator scapulae
49. Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding latissimus dorsi muscle
A. Is a lateral rotator of the arm
B. Is important when climbing a tree
C. It’s pattern of blood supply is useful in breast reconstructive surgery
D. Extends the glenohumeral joint (shoulder joint proper)
50. Choose the movement of the scapula that is NOT caused by trapezius muscle
A. Lateral rotation
B. Protraction
C. Depression
D. Elevation
51. The following are structural features of a non-lactating mammary gland?
A. Well-developed alveolar
B. Highly vascularized
C. Abundant adipose
D. Numerous ducts
52. Choose the CORRECT statement regarding the lactating mammary gland
A. Alveolar cells are devoid of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. The lactiferous sinuses are lined by stratified squamous epithelium
C. Milk synthesis is stimulated by oxytocin
D. It contains many defence cells
53. The mode of secretion in the axillary sweat glands is?
A. Merocrine
B. Holocrine
C. Apocrine
D. Eccrine
54. The organelle which is involved in post-translation modification of proteins:
A. Mitochondrion
B. Lysosomes
C. Peroxisomes
D. Golgi apparatus
55. The part of a neuron that comprises the integration domain is:
A. Dendrites
B. Soma
C. Axon
D. Terminal boutons
56. The following are correct concerning the cell membrane EXCEPT?
A. Lipid monolayer
B. Participates in cell to cell signalling
C. The middle layer is hydrophobic
D. Contain cholesterol
57. Cells lacking rough endoplasmic reticulum would NOT likely be able to produce
A. Vesicles
B. Any proteins
C. Steroid hormones
D. Enzymes for secretion
58. The following features are seen in immotile cilia syndrome EXCEPT?
A. High vulnerability to chronic respiratory infections
B. Low fertility index
C. Ectopic pregnancies
D. High sperm motility
59. Choose the neuroglial cell that is INCORRECTLY matched for their function
A. Microglia – phagocytosis
B. Ependymal cells – production of CSF
C. Oligodendrocytes – PNS myelination
D. Astrocytes – form part of the blood brain barrier
60. Choose the epithelial type that is INCORRECTLY matched with occurrence
A. Transitional – distal urethra
B. Pseudostratified columnar – olfactory epithelium
C. Simple squamous – pleura
D. Simple columnar – large intestines
61. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding the basement membrane
A. Synthesized by epithelial cells
B. Composed of the basal and reticular lamina
C. Supports the underlying connective tissue
D. Collagen type IV is a component
62. The following are lateral features of epithelia EXCEPT
A. Connexons
B. Zonula occludens
C. Adhering junctions
D. Hemidesmosomes
63. The following is an INCORRECT match of the resident cell of the mononuclear phagocytic system and its location
A. Kuppfer – liver
B. Monocytes – blood
C. Dust cells – skin
D. Dendritic – lymph nodes
64. The following are features of epithelial cells EXCEPT?
A. Avascular
B. Contiguous cells
C. Show polarity
D. Abundant intercellular material
65. Cells that are intrinsic in connective tissue include the following EXCEPT?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Lymphocytes
66. Function CORRECTLY matched with the most distinctive cellular feature;
A. Active ion transport – junctional complexes
B. Protein synthesis – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Phagocytosis – peroxisomes
D. Steroid synthesis – Rough endoplasmic reticulum
67. Stereocilia is located in all the following regions EXCEPT?
A. Epididymis
B. Vas deferens
C. Ear
D. Oviduct
68. Choose one which is NOT part of interphase
A. G1 – phase
B. M – phase
C. G2 – phase
D. S – phase
69. NOT a feature of an active protein synthesis cell
A. Prominent nucleolus
B. Heterochromatic nucleus
C. Numerous elongated mitochondria
D. Secretory vesicles
70. Organelle INCORRECTLY matched with its pathology
A. Microfilament - Kartagener’s syndrome
B. Peroxisome - Zellwegger’s syndrome
C. Lysosome - Gaucher’s disease
D. Intermediate filaments - Alzheimer’s disease
71. Functions of peroxisomes do NOT include
A. Detoxification
B. Oxidize specific organic substrates
C. Calcium storage
D. Cholesterol synthesis
72. Which of the following is NOT a membrane protein
A. Enzymes
B. Receptors
C. Channels
D. Oligosaccharides
73. Which of the following is a feature of an active ion transporting cell
A. Basal membrane infolding
B. Abundant RER
C. Abundant SER
D. Euchromatic nucleus
74. Choose the FALSE concerning microtubules
A. Dysfunction of the dynein leads to Kartagener’s syndrome
B. Microtubules form part of microvili
C. Microtubules have two subunits
D. They are a target of some anticancer drugs
75. TRUE regarding glandular epithelia
A. Sebaceous glands are Holocrine
B. Glands of Little are simple tubular
C. Parotid glands is an intrinsic gland of the GIT
D. Usually simple squamous type
76. Conjoined twins result from partial separation of embryonic cells at
A. Trilaminar disc stage
B. Implantation stage
C. Morula stage
D. Zygote stage
77. All the following are likely causes of oligohydramnios EXCEPT?
A. Brain anomalies
B. Obstructive uropathy
C. Placental insufficiency
D. Renal agenesis
78. Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding the yolk sac
A. Is incorporated during folding to form the primitive gut
B. Merkel’s Diverticulum is an associated anomaly
C. Is involved in transfer of nutrients to embryo in the 3rd and 4th week
D. Is a site of oogenesis
79. Choose one which IS NOT a neural crest derivative
A. Sympathetic chain
B. Dura matter
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Odontoblasts
80. Foetal membrane INCORRECTLY matched with associated abnormality
A. Yolk sac - Sacrococcygeal teratoma
B. Allantois - Urachal fistulae
C. Chorion - Hydatidiform mole
D. Amnion - Premature rupture of membranes
81. The placental membrane at 30 weeks comprise all the following EXCEPT?
A. Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
B. Cytotrophoblast
C. Fetal capillary endothelium
D. Syncitiotrophoblast
82. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding neurulation?
A. Is induced by the notochord and the paraxial mesoderm
B. The rostral neuropore closes on day 20
C. Failure to close the caudal neuropore results in spina bifida
D. The neural tube gives rise to the peripheral nervous system
83. Choose the FALSE statement regarding gastrulation
A. Hypoblast layer is displaced by migrating epiblast cells
B. Persistence of the primitive streak may lead to sacrococcygeal teratoma
C. The intermediate mesoderm gives rise the limb musculature system
D. The endoderm is a nutritive layer
84. Which of the following statements concerning spermatogenesis is TRUE?
A. Occurs in the epididymis
B. Sertoli cells phagocytose excess cytoplasm of sperms
C. Sperms are maximally motile in the vas deferens
D. Primary spermatocytes have haploid number of chromosomes
85. When is the 2nd meiotic division arrested during oogenesis?
A. Fertilization
B. Before birth
C. Ovulation
D. Early neonatal life
86. The day implantation commences in a normal 28-day menstrual cycle is?
A. Day 14
B. Day 20
C. Day 26
D. Day 6
87. Regarding the notochord, the following statements are true EXCEPT?
A. Provides signals that are necessary for development of the nervous system
B. Is formed after the formation of the primitive streak
C. Provides embryonic axis
D. Forms part of the vertebral bodies
88. The following events occur during the 3rd week of development EXCEPT?
A. Implantation
B. Neurulation
C. Gastrulation
D. Formation of the notochord
89. After normal delivery of the baby, there may be difficulties in delivering the placenta associated with uncontrolled uterine bleeding. This is most likely to be due to?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placenta percreta
C. Battledore placenta
D. Placenta velamentosa
90. All are characteristics of mesenchymal cells EXCEPT?
A. Ability to differentiate to other types of cells
B. They are migratory
C. They exhibit cell process
D. The main source is the notochord
91. Choose one which is not a derivative of the sclerotome
A. Erector spinae muscles
B. Annulus fibrosus
C. Ribs
D. Vertebral bodies
92. All the following constitute the endocrine ovary EXCEPT?
A. Corpus luteum
B. Theca interna
C. Granulosa cells
D. Germinal epithelium
93. All the following are results of fertilization EXCEPT?
A. Restoration of diploid
B. Completion of the spermatozoal 2nd meiotic division
C. Genetic variation
D. Initiation of the zygote mitotic divisions
94. Outcome of tubal pregnancy include all the following EXCEPT?
A. Maternal haemorrhage
B. Fetal demise
C. Rupture
D. Carried to term
95. Which of the following phases of spermatogenesis involve MOST cytodifferenciation?
A. Spermiation
B. Spermatocytogenesis
C. Formation of the spermatids
D. Spermiogenesis
96. A 25 year old female had vaginal spotting on day 28 of her last menstrual cycle that last for one day. The PDT is positive. This bleeding is most probably due to
A. Implantation of the blastocyst
B. Abortion
C. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
D. Menstrual bleeding
97. The following are functions of the allantois EXCEPT?
A. Nutrient transfer
B. Contribute to the formation of the urinary bladder
C. Is an intra-embryonic source of primordial germ cell
D. Form the umbilical vessels
98. The following statements are true about multiple gestations EXCEPT?
A. Genetic factors contribute
B. Dizygotic twins are more common than monozygotic twins
C. Dichorionic-diamniotic twins occur following separation after implantation
D. Are associated with low birth weights
99. All are true concerning the chorion and the placenta EXCEPT?
A. Lateral plate intra-embryonic mesoderm contributes to the formation of the chorion
B. Placenta is normally expelled after the delivery of the baby
C. Tertiary villi contain angioblastic core
D. The definitive fetomartenal unit is established after the third week
100. The following umbilical vessel obliterates during pregnancy
A. The right umbilical artery
B. The left umbilical artery
C. The right umbilical vein
D. The left umbilical vein
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