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Msb 100: Basics Of Biomedical Sciences Question Paper
Msb 100: Basics Of Biomedical Sciences
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: Moi University question papers
Exam Year:2005
MOI UNIVERSITY
FACULTY OF HEALTH SCIENCES
END OF TERM I EXAMINATION (ETE I) 2004/2005
COURSE CODE: MSB 100
COURSE TITLE: BASICS OF BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES
PROGRAMME: MBChB/NUR/ YEAR OF STUDY: 1(ONE)
DATE: 26TH APRIL 2005 TIME: 9.00 A.M. - 12.00 NOON
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
i) Write your University Registration Number on every piece of paper you use.
ii) Do not write your names on any piece of paper you use.
iii) This paper consists of six (6) sections, headed: Section A -Immunology, Section B - Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, Section C - Biochemistry D - Pharmacology, Section E - Microbiology & Parasitology, Section F - Radiology & Imaging. All to be answered in a total time of three (3) hours.
iv) Each section constitutes a CAT relating to the discipline named.
v) Answer all the questions in all the six (6) sections.
vi) Questions in each section must be answered in separate answer booklets or answer sheets so that they can be handed in separately at the end of the examination.
vii) Read carefully the additional instructions preceeding each section.
SECTION A: IMMUNOLOGY (30 Minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:-
(i) THIS PAPER CONSISTS OF THIRTY (30) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) TO BE ANSWERED IN THIRTY (30) MINUTES.
(ii) EACH MCQ CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/STEM WHOSE MOST CORRECT RESPONSE IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED A TO E.
(iii) FOR EACH MCQ, SELECT ONLY ONE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY CIRCLING IT.
EXAMPLE:
Major features of innate immunity include
(a) recognition
(b) specificity
(c) memory
d first line of defense
(e) adaptability
the appropriate response is d
(iv) A CORRECT RESPONSE IN THE MCQs EARNS YOU PLUS ONE (+1) MARK. AN INCORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU MINUS HALF (-½)A MARK. NO PENALTY FOR UNATTEMPTED MCQ.
(v) ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS.
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (3O minutes)
1. Basic immunology involves the understanding of:
(a) Hypersensitivity reactions
(b) Autoimmune diseases
(c) Immunodeficiency disorders
(d) Normal body immune system
(e) Immunopathology
2. Haptens are:
(a) Substances which elicit and react with products of an immune response
(b) Substances which can elicit an immune response if coupled to another molecule
(c) Substances capable of inducing B cells to produce antibodies without T cell help
(d) Substances which are processed and expressed by accessory antigen presenting cells
(e) Part of the T cell antigen receptor
3. Cell-mediated immunity:
(a) Can be transferred passively using immune sera
(b) Is mediated by T cells, macrophages and cytokines
(c) Is not effect against most of the obligate intracellular pathogens
(d) Is mediated by B lymphocytes
(e) Forms part of the innate immunity
4. Plasma cells:
(a) Are the only memory cells of virgin B lymphocytes
(b) Secrete complement factors
(c) Express surface membrane immunoglobulin markers (Smlg)
(d) Are derived from both B and t lumphocytes
(e) Are derived from B lymphocytes and secret immunoglobulins
5. In the Kenya Expanded Programme of Immunization (KEPI) the last vaccine to be given is against:
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Measles
(c) Hepatitis
(d) Tetanus
(e) Polio
6. Immunology is not at the forefront of:
(a) Genetically modified (GM) foods
(b) Apprehending hardcore criminals
(c) Prevention of childhood diseases
(d) Human genome research
(e) Replacement of dysfunctional organs
7. Louis Pasteur is credited for:
(a) Cowpox vaccination
(b) Blood group antigens
(c) Complement system proteins
(d) Attenuated vaccines
(e) Opsonins
8. Self-tolerant single positive CD4+ and CD8+ T cells are generated through:
(a) Positive selection
(b) Negative selection
(c) Clonal cell selection
(d) Cortical cell selection
(e) Thymocyte cell selection
9. Antigens are not represented by:
(a) Surface cell components of pathogens
(b) Glycoproteins
(c) Toxins and toxoids
(d) Head shock proteins
(e) Complement system proteins
10. Innate immunity is not associated with:
(a) First line of detance
(b) Phagocytes and NK cells
(c) Cytolines and interferons
(d) Skin as natural barriers
(e) B cells
11. Adaptive immunity does not involve:
(a) Burnet clonal inhibition theory
(b) Extracellular elimination of pathogens
(c) Control of intracellular pathogens
(d) B and T lymphocytes
(e) Recognition, specificity and memory
12. B and T lymphocytes posses:
(a) Antigen specific receptors
(b) Antibody specific receptors
(c) Foreign antigens
(d) Self components
(e) Memory receptors
13. T cells:
(a) Control intracellular pathogens
(b) Eliminate extracellular pathogens
(c) Do not posses antigen specific receptors
(d) Do not recognize foreign antigens in association with self components
(e) Neutralize toxins
14. Infants at birth are normally vaccinated with the following vaccines:
(a) Tetanus toxoid
(b) Measles
(c) BCG and polio
(d) Rubella
(e) Haemophilus influenza
15. Pentavalent vaccine under KEPI does not protect against:
(a) Diphtheria Tetanus and Pertussis
(b) Hepatitis B virus
(c) Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib)
(d) Hepatitis and Tetanus
(e) Measles and Polio
16. CD19 and CD20 are Cluster of Differentiation (CD) antigens of all:
(a) T cells
(b) Natural killer (NK) cells
(c) Thymocytes
(d) Plasma cells
(e) B cells
17. The central principle of adaptive immunity was pioneered by:
(a) Susum Tonegawa
(b) Burnet and co-workers
(c) Karl Landsteiner
(d) Louis Pasteur
(e) Milstein and Kohler
18. Cell membrane components expressed by certain individuals in a population are called:
(a) Mitogens
(b) Carriers
(c) Alloantigens
(d) Immunogens
(e) Cluster of differentiation (CD) antigens
19. Major features of innate immunity exclude:
(a) Inhibition of viral replication by interferons
(b) Physcial barrier of skin and surface epithelia
(c) Neutralizing antibodies
(d) Production of nitric oxide (NO)
(e) Natural killer (NK) cells mediated immunosurveillance
20. Primary immune response is characterized by:
(a) Longer big phase
(b) Shorter long phase
(c) IgG antibody
(d) Quicher onset and high magnitude
(e) Long lived memory
21. CD4 Th1 T cells are activated when processed foreign antigens are presented in association with:
(a) Class 1 MHC molecules
(b) Class II MHC molecules
(c) Class III MHC molecules
(d) Non-self components
(e) CD8+ molecules
22. Humoral components exclude:
(a) T cells and cytokines
(b) Antibodies
(c) Complement system proteins
(d) Memory B cells
(e) IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE and IgD
23. Paternity identity is confirmed through:
(a) Blood group typing
(b) Maternal antigen evaluations
(c) DNA and HLA typing
(d) Finger print evaluation
(e) Physical appearance determination
24. Secondary (peripheral) lymphoid organs exclude the following:
(a) Bone marrow and thymus
(b) Spleen
(c) Peyer’s patches
(d) Tonsils and adenoids
(e) Lymph nodes
25. The smallest binding unit of an antigen is referred to as:
(a) Complementarily determining region
(b) An epitope
(c) Surface membrane Ig
(d) Appendix
(e) Self-component
26. Travelers or tourists to certain areas are advised to receive:
(a) Anthrax vaccine
(b) Rabies vaccine
(c) Hepatitis B vaccine
(d) Yellow fever vaccine
(e) BCG vaccine
27. Requirements for immunogenecity exclude:
(a) Dose and route of antigen administration
(b) High degree of foreigners
(c) High degree of physiocochemical complexity
(d) Individual genetic make up
(e) Low degree of specificity
28. Myeloid pathway of cell differentiation leads to production of:
(a) Helper T cells
(b) Cytotoxic T cells
(c) Neutrophils and Posionophils
(d) Plasma cells
(e) Cytokines
29. In the secondary lymphoid organ the paracortical areas are associated with:
(a) Mostly B cells
(b) Mostly T cells
(c) Macrophages
(d) Plasma cells
(e) Germinal centers
30. The mammalian equivalent of the avian Bursa of Fabricious is the:
(a) Spleen
(b) Gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
(c) Thymus
(d) Bone marrow
(e) Liver
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